1001 Errors in the Christian Bible

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John -- Errors 530-536

#530

John 3: (KJV)


34 “For he whom God hath sent speaketh the words of God: for God giveth not the Spirit by measure unto him.”


The Greek also has a “the” before the second use of “God”.

# 531


John 3: (KJV)


36 “He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that believeth not the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him.”


KJV has mistranslated the second “believeth”, it should be “obeyeth”, but a majority of moderns get it right. The sentiment though of one of the most important themes of the Christian Bible, reward only comes through Jesus, is contradicted by one of the most important themes of the Tanakh illustrated for example by Jeremiah 17: (KJV)


10 “I the LORD search the heart, I try the reins, even to give every man according to his ways, and according to the fruit of his doings.”

# 532

John 4: (KJV)


1 “When therefore the LORD knew how the Pharisees had heard that Jesus made and baptized more disciples than John,
2 (Though Jesus himself baptized not, but his disciples,)”


Compare to John 3: (KJV)


22 “After these things came Jesus and his disciples into the land of Judaea; and there he tarried with them, and baptized.”


John 4:’s Jesus did not baptize but John 3:’s Jesus did.

# 533

John 4: (KJV)


5 “Then cometh he to a city of Samaria, which is called Sychar, near to the parcel of ground that Jacob gave to his son Joseph.”


The town in the Tanakh was “Shechem” and not “Sychar”. There is no evidence that there ever was a “Sychar” in Samaria.

# 534

John 4: (KJV)


6 “Now Jacob's well was there. Jesus therefore, being wearied with his journey, sat thus on the well: and it was about the sixth hour.”


The Greek literally says “on the well” so KJV has translated correctly. A majority of moderns though avoid “on” and say something to the effect of “by” or “at”. Since “wells” are generally thought to consist mainly of the shaft and pool of water at the bottom it sounds funny to say someone would be sitting on this.

# 535

John 4: (KJV)


25 “The woman saith unto him, I know that Messias cometh, which is called Christ: when he is come, he will tell us all things.”


“Christ” above should be “anointed” as the underlying Greek word means “anointed”. In the verse the woman cannot be using the Greek word as a name because she doesn’t even know who Jesus is for Christ’s sake. She also is not using the Greek word as a title because there is no definite article (as in “the Christ”) before the Greek word. The best translation is that she is giving the meaning of the Hebrew “Messiah” which is “anointed”. It’s unlikely that “which is called anointed” or “the one being called anointed” is an editorial comment as the “when he is come” should be “when that one is come” and this qualification (“that one”) supports the entire phrase as the woman’s (Young’s correctly translates “that one”). All modern translations I’ve seen use “Christ” here.

# 536

John 4: (KJV)


29 “Come, see a man, which told me all things that ever I did: is not this the Christ?”


The underlying Greek word for “Christ” is “anointed”. The English word “Christ” is generally associated with a specific individual and used as a name. As the woman is using the definite article and it’s unlikely at the time of the supposed story that Jesus was called “Jesus Christ” “anointed” is a better translation.

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